In the previous post I said that back in 1964 there were a fraction of the number of cars in Spain that there are today. I’ve actually looked that up and figures cited this week in the newspapers claim that back then there were “dos millones de vehículos frente a los 30 millones de ahora y cuatro millones de conductores frente a los 25 millones que existen en la actualidad.”
Let’s look at that again, in English:
Back in 1964, there were 4 million drivers driving 2 million cars. That doesn’t sound too unreasonable. I guess there were some drivers who didn’t own a vehicle, a few families where only one person – most probably the man – drove a car, and some where one or two of the adult children living at home – and remember that most children live at home in Spain until they marry – were driving the family vehicle. Logically, that averages out to twice as many drivers as cars.
Now, however, we have 25 million drivers driving 30 million cars. Does that mean there are five million cars on the road driven by “non drivers”? Or does it mean that 5 million drivers have two cars?
Either way, it doesn’t sound ideal.
don't confuse the narrator 